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Question #a5154

1 Answer

Aug 13, 2016

$= 0$ $=0$

Explanation:

Because $- 1 < cos x < 1, x \in (- \infty, \infty)$ $-1 < cos x < 1, x in (-oo,oo)$ , the numerator is always a bounded finite number

so

$lim_(x to oo) cosx / x = 0$

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