Question #e8f91

Question

Question #e8f91

1 Answer

Impact of this question

1655 views around the world

You can reuse this answer
Creative Commons License

Answer 1 · 2017-02-13T23:30:30

No

Explanation:

As per Law of Universal Gravitation the force of attraction $F_{G}$ $F_G$ between two bodies of masses $M_{1} and M_{2}$ $M_1 and M_2$ is directly proportional to the product of masses of the two bodies. it is also inversely proportional to the square of the distance $r$ $r$ between the two. That is the force of gravity follows inverse square law.
Mathematically stated

$F_{G} \propto M_{1} . M_{2}$ $F_G prop M_1.M_2$
Also $F_{G} \propto \frac{1}{r^{2}}$ $F_G prop 1/r^2$
Combining the two we obtain the proportionality expression

$F_{G} \propto \frac{M_{1} . M_{2}}{r^{2}}$ $F_G prop (M_1.M_2)/r^2$
Follows that

$F_{G} = G \frac{M_{1} . M_{2}}{r^{2}}$ $F_G =G (M_1.M_2)/r^2$ .......(1)

Where $G$ $G$ is the proportionality constant.
It has the value $6.67408 \times 10^{- 11} m^{3} k g^{- 1} s^{- 2}$ $6.67408 xx 10^-11 m^3 kg^-1 s^-2$

We see that equation (1) by definition is independent of the medium in which two bodies are located.

Science

Math

Humanities

... and beyond

Question #e8f91

1 Answer

Explanation:

Related questions

Impact of this question