How do you calculate cos−1(√32)? Trigonometry Inverse Trigonometric Functions Inverse Trigonometric Properties 1 Answer Massimiliano May 1, 2015 Since the range of the function y=arccosx is [0,π] and the value positive √32, the angle is in the first quadrant. So: cos−1(√32)=π6. Answer link Related questions How do you use the properties of inverse trigonometric functions to evaluate tan(arcsin(0.31))? What is sin(sin−1√22)? How do you find the exact value of cos(tan−1√3)? How do you evaluate sec−1√2? How do you find cos(cot−1√3) without a calculator? How do you rewrite sec2(tan−1x) in terms of x? How do you use the inverse trigonometric properties to rewrite expressions in terms of x? How do you calculate sin−1(0.1)? How do you solve the inverse trig function cos−1(−√22)? How do you solve the inverse trig function sin(sin−1(13))? See all questions in Inverse Trigonometric Properties Impact of this question 35110 views around the world You can reuse this answer Creative Commons License