How do you solve (cosx−1)(cosx−4)=0 over the interval 0 to 2pi? Trigonometry Right Triangles Trigonometric Functions of Any Angle 1 Answer Konstantinos Michailidis Feb 5, 2016 Hence |cosx|≤1 we have that cosx−1=0⇒cosx=1 so we have that x=0 or x=2π Answer link Related questions How do you find the trigonometric functions of any angle? What is the reference angle? How do you use the ordered pairs on a unit circle to evaluate a trigonometric function of any angle? What is the reference angle for 140∘? How do you find the value of cot300∘? What is the value of sin−45∘? How do you find the trigonometric functions of values that are greater than 360∘? How do you use the reference angles to find sin210cos330−tan135? How do you know if sin30=sin150? How do you show that (cosθ)(secθ)=1 if θ=π4? See all questions in Trigonometric Functions of Any Angle Impact of this question 2663 views around the world You can reuse this answer Creative Commons License