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Is it always true that $(f \circ g) (x) = (g \circ f) (x)$ $(f@g)(x) = (g@f)(x)$ ?

1 Answer

AJ Speller · Shreyans Bhansali

Sep 13, 2014

This relationship is true only if the functions $f$ $f$ and $g$ $g$ are inverse functions of each other.

Please see the video.

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