Why don't vertical lines other than $y=0$ have y-intercepts?

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Answer 1 · 2018-03-12T11:34:39

Vertical lines, by definition are parallel to $y$ -axis.

By definition parallel lines have no points in common unless they are the same line in which case they have all points in common.

Why don't vertical lines other than y=0y=0 have y-intercepts?