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Answer 1 · 2017-11-21T17:44:59

The value is $x$ . See explanation.

$tan^{-1}x$ is an inverse function of $tanx$ , and for any function $f(x)$ and its inverse $f^{-1}(x)$ we have:

$f(f^{-1}(x))=x$

So the value of this expression is $x$ for every $x$ in the domain
$D=RR - {pi/2+kpi;k in ZZ}$