Question #e0a76

1 Answer
Daniel L.
Nov 21, 2017

The value is xx. See explanation.

Explanation:

tan^{-1}xtan−1x is an inverse function of tanxtanx, and for any function f(x)f(x) and its inverse f^{-1}(x)f−1(x) we have:

f(f^{-1}(x))=xf(f−1(x))=x

So the value of this expression is xx for every xx in the domain
D=RR - {pi/2+kpi;k in ZZ}

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