Question #14061

1 Answer
Aug 4, 2016

No. Your suggestion is close, but the cosAcosB term should not be dividing the 1.

tan(A+B) = (tan(A) + tan(B))/(1 - tan(A)tan(B))

Explanation:

Let's derive it. We know that

sin(A+B) = sin(A)cos(B) + sin(B)cos(A)

cos(A+B) = cos(A)cos(B) - sin(A)sin(B)

tan(A+B) = (sin(A+B))/(cos(A+B))

=(sin(A)cos(B) + sin(B)cos(A))/(cos(A)cos(B) - sin(A)sin(B))

Take cos(A)cos(B) out of denominator as common factor:

=(sin(A)cos(B) + sin(B)cos(A))/(cos(A)cos(B)(1 - tan(A)tan(B)))

We can split this up into two separate terms by splitting up the numerator. This means we can cancel out the cosines on the numerator.

=(sin(A)cancel(cos(B)))/(cos(A)cancel(cos(B))(1 - tan(A)tan(B))

+ (sin(B)cancel(cos(A)))/(cancel(cos(A))cos(B)(1 - tan(A)tan(B))

Because tanphi = (sinphi)/(cosphi) this leaves:

(tan(A))/(1 - tan(A)tan(B)) + (tan(B))/(1 - tan(A)tan(B))

Add together again to obtain

tan(A+B) = (tan(A) + tan(B))/(1 - tan(A)tan(B))