Find the differential equation (1+y^2)(1+lnx)dx+xdy=0 with y(1)=1?
1 Answer
y = tan(pi/4 - lnx - ln^2x)
Explanation:
You have found the differential equation - it is in the question! We assume you seek the solution of the differential equation and also that the log base is
(1+y^2)(1+lnx)dx+xdy=0 withy(1)=1 ..... [A]
We can rearrange this ODE from differential form to standard and collect terms:
- 1/(1+y^2)dy/dx = (1+lnx)/x
This now separable, so separating the variables yields:
\ \ \ \ \ - \ int \ 1/(1+y^2) \ dy = int \ (1+lnx)/x \ dx
:. - \ int \ 1/(1+y^2) \ dy = int \ 1/x \ dx + int \ lnx/x \ dx ..... [B]
The first and and second integrals are standard, the third will require an application of integration by parts:
Let
{ (u,=lnx, => (du)/dx,=1/x), ((dv)/dx,=1/x, => v,=lnx ) :}
Then plugging into the IBP formula:
int \ (u)((dv)/dx) \ dx = (u)(v) - int \ (v)((du)/dx) \ dx
gives us
int \ (lnx)(1/x) \ dx = (lnx)(lnx) - int \ (lnx)(1/x) \ dx
:. 2 \ int \ (lnx)/x \ dx = ln^2x => int \ (lnx)/x \ dx = ln^2x/2
Using this result, we can now return to integrating our earlier result [B]:
- arctany = lnx + (ln^2x)/2 + C
Applying the initial condition
- arctan1 = ln1 + (ln^2 1)/2 + C => C = -pi/4
Thus:
- arctany = lnx + (ln^2x)/2 - pi/4
:. arctany = pi/4 - lnx - ln^2x
:. y = tan(pi/4 - lnx - ln^2x)