Knowing that sec(x) = 1/cos(x)sec(x)=1cos(x) and tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x)tan(x)=sin(x)cos(x), rewriting the equation yields
1/cos(x) - cos(x)/1 = sin(x) * (sin(x)/cos(x))1cos(x)−cos(x)1=sin(x)⋅(sin(x)cos(x))
Rewriting the left fraction by using the property
a/b-c/d =(ad-bc)/(bd)ab−cd=ad−bcbd
and simplifying the right side of the equation yields
(1-cos^2(x))/cos(x)=(sin^2(x))/cos(x)1−cos2(x)cos(x)=sin2(x)cos(x)
Note that in this case, we can make use of the identity
sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1sin2(x)+cos2(x)=1, since 1-cos^2(x)=sin^2(x)1−cos2(x)=sin2(x), giving us
sin^2(x)/cos(x)=sin^2(x)/cos(x)sin2(x)cos(x)=sin2(x)cos(x), which is true, therefore we have proven that
sec(x)-cos(x) = sin(x) tan(x)sec(x)−cos(x)=sin(x)tan(x)