How do you solve 2sintcost-cost=0?

1 Answer
Nov 27, 2015

t = pi/2 + k " or " t = pi/6 + 2k " or " t = (5pi)/6 + 2k, for k in ZZ

Explanation:

First of all, factorize:

color(white)(xxx) 2 sin t cos t - cos t = 0

<=>color(white)(x) cost (2 sin t - 1 ) = 0

A product can only be 0 if one of the factors (or both) is 0 which means:

<=>color(white)(x) cos t = 0 color(white)(xx) "or" color(white)(xx) 2 sin t - 1 = 0

<=>color(white)(x) cos t = 0 color(white)(xx) "or" color(white)(xx) sin t = 1/2

We know that the cosinus function intercepts with the x axis at pi/2 and 3/2 pi in the period [0, 2pi].

And we know that sin(t) = 1/2 is true for t = pi / 6 and t = (5 pi) / 6 in the period [0, 2pi].

So, in the period [0, 2pi] we have four solutions:

t = pi/6 " or " t = pi/2 " or " t = (5 pi)/6 " or " t = (3 pi)/2.

To obtain a solution space for t in RR, we need to consider all possible periods. Then, the solution is

t = pi/2 + k " or " t = pi/6 + 2k " or " t = (5pi)/6 + 2k, for k in ZZ

The solution space can be also formulated as

{ pi/2 + k; color(white)(x) pi/6 + 2k; color(white)(x)(5pi)/6 + 2k color(white)(x) | color(white)(x) k in ZZ}