Is the mean value theorem can be applied to #f(x)= 1/x# in the interval #[-1, 1]#?
Can't be applied
#f(x)= 1/x#
#f'(x) = -1/x^2#
#f(c)= -1/c^2#
Applying Mean Value Theorem:
#f'(c)=(f(b)-f(a))/(b-a)#
#=(1-(-1))/(1-(-1))=1#
For any value of #c# there will be no value of #f'(c) = 1#
Therefore, Mean value theorem can't be applied.
Please verify my answer. How can I describe it in a better way?
Can't be applied
Applying Mean Value Theorem:
For any value of
Therefore, Mean value theorem can't be applied.
Please verify my answer. How can I describe it in a better way?
1 Answer
Please see below.
Explanation:
When we are asked whether some conditional theorem "can be applied" to some situation, we are usually really being asked "Can we use the theorem to show that the conclusion is true?"
We can do this if the hypotheses are true. So the question amounts to "Are the hypotheses of this theorem true in this situation?"
To answer this particular question, we need to determine whether the hypotheses of the Mean Value Theorem are true for the function
The Mean Value Theorem has two hypotheses:
H1 :
H2 :
We say that we can apply the Mean Vaue Theorem if both hypotheses are true.
H1 : The function
That is actually enough to tell us the the theorem "cannot be applied".
Let's check the other hypothesis anyway.
H2 : The function
[Because the derivative,
A note on "if . . . then . . . " theorems
if the hypotheses are not true, we learn nothing about the truth of the conclusion.
For an example involving the Mean Value Theorem, see this question and answer: