My proof for this limit using the definition is correct? lim to 2^+ (1/(x-2)) = +\infty
My answer:
For all A > 0, exists \delta > 0 such that:
(1/(x-2)) > A so that 0 < x+2 < \delta .
Looking on inequality bellow between B, we have the key choose for \delta :
(1/(x-2)) > A
(x-2) < 1/A
x < 1/A+2
Like this, for \delta = 1/A+2 , we have 1/(x-2) > A always that 0 < x-2 < delta .
My answer:
For all A > 0, exists
Looking on inequality bellow between B, we have the key choose for
Like this, for
1 Answer
May 31, 2018
See explanation
Explanation:
There is one mistake:
I might also want to refine the wording a little, for instance:
"For all A > 0, there exists a
Also, as the proof presupposes that
One other detail: You introduce B, but it's not clear where B belongs or what it refers to.