For x=0 we have
f(0)-e^(-f(0))=-1
We consider a new function g(x)=x-e^(-x)+1 , xinRR
g(0)=0 ,
g'(x)=1+e^(-x)>0 , xinRR
As a result g is increasing in RR. Thus because it's strictly increasing g is "1-1" (one to one)
So, f(0)-e^(-f(0))+1=0 <=> g(f(0))=g(0) <=> f(0)=0
We need to show that x/2<f(x)<xf'(x) <=>^(x>0)
1/2<f(x)/x<f'(x) <=>
1/2<(f(x)-f(0))/(x-0)<f'(x)
- f is continuous at [0,x]
- f is differentiable in (0,x)
According to the mean value theorem there is x_0in(0,x)
for which f'(x_0)=(f(x)-f(0))/(x-0)
f(x)-e^(-f(x))=x-1 , xinRR so
by differentiating both parts we get
f'(x)-e^(-f(x))(-f(x))'=1 <=> f'(x)+f'(x)e^(-f(x))=1 <=>
f'(x)(1+e^(-f(x)))=1 <=>^(1+e^(-f(x))>0)
f'(x)=1/(1+e^(-f(x)))
The function 1/(1+e^(-f(x))) is differentiable. As a result f' is differentiable and f is 2 times differentiable with
f''(x)=-((1+e^(-f(x)))')/(1+e^(-f(x)))^2 =
(f'(x)e^(-f(x)))/((1+e^(-f(x)))^2 >0 , xinRR
-> f' is strictly increasing in RR which means
x_0in(0,x) <=> 0<x_0<x <=>
f'(0)<f'(x_0)<f'(x) <=>
1/(1+e^(-f(0)))<f(x)/x<f'(x) <=>
1/2<f(x)/x<f'(x) <=>^(x>0)
x/2<f(x)<xf'(x)