Show that x/2<f(x)<xf'(x) , AAx>0 ?

f:RR->RR differentiable in RR with

  • f(x)-e^(-f(x))=x-1 , xinRR

Show that

x/2<f(x)<xf'(x) , x>0

1 Answer
Mar 8, 2018

Check below for answer

Explanation:

For x=0 we have

f(0)-e^(-f(0))=-1

We consider a new function g(x)=x-e^(-x)+1 , xinRR

g(0)=0 ,

g'(x)=1+e^(-x)>0 , xinRR

As a result g is increasing in RR. Thus because it's strictly increasing g is "1-1" (one to one)

So, f(0)-e^(-f(0))+1=0 <=> g(f(0))=g(0) <=> f(0)=0

We need to show that x/2<f(x)<xf'(x) <=>^(x>0)

1/2<f(x)/x<f'(x) <=>

1/2<(f(x)-f(0))/(x-0)<f'(x)

  • f is continuous at [0,x]
  • f is differentiable in (0,x)

According to the mean value theorem there is x_0in(0,x)
for which f'(x_0)=(f(x)-f(0))/(x-0)

f(x)-e^(-f(x))=x-1 , xinRR so

by differentiating both parts we get

f'(x)-e^(-f(x))(-f(x))'=1 <=> f'(x)+f'(x)e^(-f(x))=1 <=>

f'(x)(1+e^(-f(x)))=1 <=>^(1+e^(-f(x))>0)

f'(x)=1/(1+e^(-f(x)))

The function 1/(1+e^(-f(x))) is differentiable. As a result f' is differentiable and f is 2 times differentiable with

f''(x)=-((1+e^(-f(x)))')/(1+e^(-f(x)))^2 =

(f'(x)e^(-f(x)))/((1+e^(-f(x)))^2 >0 , xinRR

-> f' is strictly increasing in RR which means

x_0in(0,x) <=> 0<x_0<x <=>

f'(0)<f'(x_0)<f'(x) <=>

1/(1+e^(-f(0)))<f(x)/x<f'(x) <=>

1/2<f(x)/x<f'(x) <=>^(x>0)

x/2<f(x)<xf'(x)