Question #421de
2 Answers
As this is a polynomial, its MacLaurin expansion coincides with the polynomial itself. Using the binomial theorem:
Explanation:
We can also try to begin constructing a Maclaurin expansion to see that we get the same result as with the binomial theorem:
We start by taking derivatives of
We see that all derivatives after the 5th will be zero. This means the Maclaurin expansion is only those first five derivatives.
If we plug in
This means our Maclaurin expansion is:
which is the same result the Binomial Theorem gives us.
In fact, you can use this type of Maclaurin expansion to derive the Binomial Theorem itself. Have a look here if you're interested in seeing that:
https://bringholm.com/docs/Deriving%20the%20Binomial%20Theorem%20using%20Maclaurin%20expansions.pdf