Proof of the Product Rule
Key Questions
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All we need to do is use the definition of the derivative alongside a simple algebraic trick.
First, recall the the the product
fgfg of the functionsff andgg is defined as(fg)(x)=f(x)g(x)(fg)(x)=f(x)g(x) . Therefore, it's derivative is(fg)^(prime)(x) = lim_(h to 0) ((fg)(x+h)-(fg)(x))/(h) = lim_(h to 0) (f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x))/(h) Now, note that the expression above is the same as
lim_(h to 0) (f(x+h)g(x+h)+0-f(x)g(x))/(h) Wich we can rewrite, taking into account that
f(x+h)g(x)-f(x+h)g(x)=0 , as:lim_(h to 0) 1/h [f(x+h)g(x+h)+(f(x+h)g(x)-f(x+h)g(x))-f(x)g(x)] = lim_(h to 0) 1/h(f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]+g(x)[f(x+h)-f(x)]) Using the property that the limit of a sum is the sum of the limits, we get:
lim_(h to 0) f(x+h)(g(x+h)-g(x))/(h) + lim_(h to 0)g(x)(f(x+h)-f(x))/(h) Wich give us the product rule
(fg)^(prime)(x) = f(x)g^(prime)(x)+g(x)f^(prime)(x), since:
lim_(h to 0) f(x+h) = f(x),
lim_(h to 0)(g(x+h)-g(x))/(h) = g^(prime)(x),
lim_(h to 0) g(x)=g(x),
lim_(h to 0) (f(x+h)-f(x))/(h) = f^(prime)(x)