Question #421de

2 Answers
Jan 4, 2018

As this is a polynomial, its MacLaurin expansion coincides with the polynomial itself. Using the binomial theorem:

(1-x)^5 = 1-5x+10x^2-10x^3+5x^4-x^5

Jan 4, 2018

(1-x)^5=1-5x+10x^2-10x^3+5x^4-x^5

Explanation:

We can also try to begin constructing a Maclaurin expansion to see that we get the same result as with the binomial theorem:

We start by taking derivatives of (1-x)^5:

d/dx((1-x)^5)=-5(1-x)^4

d^2/dx^2((1-x)^5)=5*4(1-x)^3

d^3/dx^3((1-x)^5)=-5*4*3(1-x)^2

d^4/dx^4((1-x)^5)=5*4*3*2(1-x)

d^5/dx^5((1-x)^5)=-5*4*3*2*1

d^6/dx^6((1-x)^5)=0

d^7/dx^7((1-x)^5)=0

We see that all derivatives after the 5th will be zero. This means the Maclaurin expansion is only those first five derivatives.

If we plug in 0 to all our derivatives we see that the 1-x terms become 1, so we get that the derivatives are:

f^0(0)=1

f^1(0)=-5=-(5!)/(4!)=-5

f^2(0)=5*4=(5!)/(3!)=20

f^3(0)=-5*4*3=-(5!)/(2!)=-60

f^4(0)=5*4*3*2=(5!)/(1!)=120

f^5(0)=-5*4*3*2*1=-(5!)/(0!)=-120

This means our Maclaurin expansion is:
1-5x+20/(2!)x^2-60/(3!)x^3+120/(4!)x^4-120/(5!)x^5=

=1-5x+10x^2-10x^3+5x^4-x^5

which is the same result the Binomial Theorem gives us.

In fact, you can use this type of Maclaurin expansion to derive the Binomial Theorem itself. Have a look here if you're interested in seeing that:
https://bringholm.com/docs/Deriving%20the%20Binomial%20Theorem%20using%20Maclaurin%20expansions.pdf